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Message Posted: Thu, 02 Dec 2004 @ 15:29:58 GMT

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Hi Victor:

I agree with you 100% that the optimizer can and does decide to use a product join under certain conditions. However, if you go back to the original posted question, it was about the 1=1. Normally when the optimizer uses a product join, it also provides at least one reference that indicates a JOIN CONDITITON of column=column. This is a lot different than 1=1 (which is true for every two rows being considered for the join and therefore to go into SPOOL).

Granted, I have seen in V2R5 one situation where the join condition was 1=1, but it was not a product join. Therefore, it too was different than the question posted.

Hope this helps reclarify my posting.

Thanks for asking.

Michael Larkins
Certified Teradata Master
Certified Teradata SQL Instructor

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